CCSK EXAM SIMULATOR
1. What is true of workload?
2. CCM: a compagny wants to use IaaS offering of some CSP. Which of the following options for using CCM is NOT suitable for the compagny as a cloud customer?
3. In a cloud environment, how can you best determine data/information security risks and potential controls?
4. What is true of cloud built-in firewalls?
5. When mapping functions to lifecycle phases, which functions are required to successfully process data?
6. Which common components of big data is focused on the mechanisms used to ingest large volumes of data, often of a streaming nature?
7. Highly regulated industries such as finance and health care should consider the impact of cloud providers operating in diverse geographic locations and ………..
8. When designing an encryption system, you should start with a threat model
9. Which tools discover internal uses of cloud services through various mechanisms such as network monitoring, integration with existing gateways or monitoring tools, or by monitoring DNS queries?
10. CCM: in the CCM tool (encryption and key management) is an example of which of the following?
11. Which of the following statements best defines the potential advantages of security as a service SecaaS?
12. CCM: which of the following statements about CCM v3.0.1 is NOT true?
13. You should disable remote access when working with immutable workloads?
14. Virtual appliances can become bottleneck because they cannot fail open and must intercept all traffic
15. How can virtual machine communications bypass network security controls?
16. What makes the metastructure layer of cloud computing so different from traditional computing?
17. What method can be utilized along with data fragmentation to enhance security?
18. Which attack surfaces, if any, does virtualization technology introduce?
19. Which of the following statements best defines the “authorization” as a component of identity , entitlement and access management
20. Which tool is the primary tool between the cloud provider and customer that extends governance into business partners and providers
21. What are major factor to building and managing secure management plane?
22. Immutable workloads make it faster to roll out updates versions because applications must be designed to handle individual nodes going down?
23. How can key management be leveraged to prevent cloud providers from inappropriately accessing customer data?
24. Of the choices below, which option allows for the most interoperability in security authentication in a cloud environment?
25. If in certain litigations and investigations, the actual cloud application or environment itself is relevant to resolving the dispute in the litigation or the investigation, how is likely the information to be obtained?
26. Database activity monitoring and file activity monitoring are specifically recommended for what type of data migrations into the cloud?
27. Which type of cloud service provider would you contact to SSO-enable your customers and employees for access all corporate applications?
28. You have a business relationship with a cloud provider for all sales management functionalities. Through the API and SDK, you have customized the interface and some functionality, but the back end service is done through the cloud provider. In this relationship, which service is completed by the cloud provider?
29. What is resource pooling?
30. ENISA: which is not one of the following key legal issues common across all scenarios?
31. The software defined perimeter SDP includes which components?
32. If the management plane has been breached, you should confirm the templates/configurations for your infrastructure or applications have not also been compromised
33. Vulnerabilities assessments cannot be easily integrated into CI/CD pipelines because of provider restrictions
34. Which deployment model is commonly used to describe a non-cloud data center bridged directly to a cloud provider?
35. What is the order of the main phases of secure applications design and development?
36. When configuring properly, logs can track every code, infrastructure and configuration change and connect it back to the submitter and approver, including the tests results
37. ENISA: in infrastructure as as service IaaS, who is responsible for guest system monitoring?
38. Which action is part of the preparation phase of the incident response lifecycle?
39. APIs and services requires extensive hardening and must assume attacks for authenticated and unauthenticated adversaries
40. Which regulations affect data controllers with business in japan?
41. ENISA: an example of a user provisioning vulnerability is:
42. What are the NIST defined essential characteristics for cloud computing?
43. Which facet is focused on protecting the management plane components, such as web and API servers from attacks?
44. When the applications components communicate directly with the cloud service, the management and metastructure might fall within the application security scope
45. What is a core tenant of risk management?
46. Compute virtualization abstracts the running of code, not including the operating systems, from the underlying hardware
47. If a provider’s infrastructure is not in scope, who is responsible for building compliant applications and services?
48. What is the audit related implications of the outsourced cloud services?
49. Which phase of incident response life cycle includes creating and validating alerts?
50. which action is part of the containement phase of the incident response lifecycle?
51. What item below allows disparate directory services and independent security domain to be interconnected?
52. While the cloud consumer is responsible for implementing the security controls, the cloud provider implements the security of the workloads
53. What can be implemented to help with account granularity and limit blast radius with IaaS and PaaS?
54. The key concern of data backup and recovery schemes is
55. What factor should you understand about the data specifically due to legal, regulatory, and jurisdictional factors?
56. CCM: the following list of control belong to which domain of the CCM: GRM 06 -Policy GRM 07 -Policy enforcement GRM 08 Policy impact on risk assessment GRM 09 -Policy reviews GRM 10 -Risk assessments GRM 11 -Risk management framework?
57. What is true of data collection forensics?
58. What is a potential benefit of using a security as a service SecaaS?
59. How does running applications on distinct virtual networks and only connecting networks as needed help?
60. Which type of application security testing involves manual testing activity that is not necessarily integrated into automated testing
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